L5M7 Paper 1 – Free

L5M7 Paper 1 – Free

Test your knowledge with this practice exam

25
Questions
60
Minutes

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Question 1 of 25

1 Verdana Consumer Goods has mapped its supply chain from cotton farms in India through spinning mills, fabric manufacturers, garment factories, and distribution centres to its retail stores. Its procurement director observes that multiple raw material suppliers feed into a single finished goods supplier. Which statement most accurately describes the difference between what Verdana is observing and a traditional supply chain?
2 Aquila Aerospace Ltd's quality director monitors supplier defect rates using SPC charts. Over a 30-day period, the data shows: average defect rate 50 ppm, upper control limit (UCL) 80 ppm, lower control limit (LCL) 20 ppm. On day 18, a single batch records 95 ppm. Under SPC methodology, what should the procurement manager do?
3 Kalahari Logistics plc manages distribution for a range of consumer goods manufacturers. Its data shows that small weekly demand variations of ±3% at retail level result in order swings of ±25% at the raw materials tier. Which of the following best explains why this amplification occurs?
4 Verdana Consumer Goods is experiencing significant demand amplification across its supply network. Which TWO of the following actions would most directly mitigate the bullwhip effect? Select TWO.
5 NexaBuild Ltd is reviewing how its construction supply chain creates competitive advantage. Its commercial director identifies four candidate strategies. Which TWO would primarily deliver DIFFERENTIATION-based competitive advantage rather than cost-based? Select TWO.
6 Which of the following is NOT identified as a cause of the bullwhip effect in supply chains?
7 Crestfield Retail Group is negotiating a 3-year contract with a fast-fashion fabric supplier. Cotton prices fluctuate up to ±18% annually due to weather and currency shifts. Crestfield's commercial team wants pricing certainty for budgeting purposes, but the supplier refuses to absorb the entire risk of cotton price volatility. Which pricing arrangement best balances both parties' needs?
8 Consider the following statements about supply chains and supply networks:
  1. A supply chain is characterised by a linear, sequential flow from raw material to end customer.
  2. A supply network involves multiple interconnected tiers of suppliers and more realistically represents modern procurement.
  3. Supply Chain Management (SCM) focuses exclusively on physical goods movement rather than information flows.
  4. The bullwhip effect is a phenomenon unique to supply networks and does not occur in linear supply chains. Which TWO statements are correct?
9 Verdana Consumer Goods has installed a shared demand visibility portal giving all Tier 1 and Tier 2 suppliers access to point-of-sale data. After 12 months, order volatility at the raw material tier has dropped from ±28% to ±6%. Its Head of Supply Chain is now evaluating whether to extend portal access to Tier 3 suppliers — raw material extractors in emerging markets with limited IT infrastructure. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
10 A supply chain for Crestfield Retail Group has four tiers. At the retail level, demand varies by ±5%. Historical data shows the bullwhip amplification factor between each consecutive tier is approximately 2×. What is the expected order variability at the Tier 3 (raw material) level?
11 Aquila Aerospace Ltd purchases titanium fasteners from a specialist component supplier. That component supplier, in turn, sources raw titanium from a mining company. In Aquila's supply structure, which tier does the mining company occupy?
12 Hines (1994) identified network sourcing as a hybrid between Japanese and Western sourcing practices. Which of the following is a key feature that distinguishes network sourcing from a purely arms-length Western approach?
13 IKEA's IWAY (IKEA Way) code of conduct is a component of its supply network management approach. Which of the following best explains its strategic purpose?
14 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the network sourcing model as described by Hines (1994)?
15 Verdanix Enterprises is mapping its activities using Porter's Value Chain (1985). Its CIO argues that 'all activities IT supports' should be classified as primary because they are business-critical. The CFO disagrees, saying classification depends on whether the activities directly create value for the customer. Looking at the proposed activity list, which TWO are correctly classified as PRIMARY activities under Porter's Value Chain? Select TWO.
16 Elmbrook Solutions, a professional services firm, has conducted a value chain analysis and identified that its client reporting process consumes 20% of staff time but is consistently rated as low value by clients. The process is standardised and could be replicated by a specialist third party. Which strategic response is most appropriate?
17 NexaBuild Ltd has worked with a specialist structural steel supplier for 14 years. The two organisations share production schedules, have co-developed proprietary joint specifications, and the steel supplier has co-located a technical team at NexaBuild's engineering headquarters. Which position on the supply chain relationship spectrum best describes this relationship?
18 Verdana Consumer Goods is reviewing cost-reduction options across its supplier base. Its category team has shortlisted five statements about supplier rationalisation and value engineering:
  1. Supplier rationalisation reduces administrative cost and increases buyer leverage but increases supply risk if rationalisation goes too far.
  2. Value engineering focuses on reviewing existing products to remove cost; value analysis applies during design before production starts.
  3. Single sourcing eliminates the bullwhip effect and removes the need for risk management.
  4. Supplier rationalisation should always pair with active risk-mitigation steps such as dual-sourcing the most critical components.
  5. Aggregation of requirements across business units increases buyer purchasing power. Which combination of statements is correct?
19 Marwood Estates' junior buyer has just completed market analysis and supplier identification for a new HVAC contract, identifying 12 candidate suppliers, and is about to issue the ITT. The category manager intervenes: 'You can't go straight to issuing the ITT — there's a stage in between.' Which is the correct next stage in the 6-stage CIPS sourcing process?
20 Verdanix Enterprises is reviewing how its supply chain creates competitive advantage. Its analysis reveals that suppliers consistently deliver components three weeks ahead of the industry average lead time, and that two Tier 1 suppliers have contributed six patented innovations in the past 18 months. Which TWO of the five competitive dimensions are most clearly evidenced? Select TWO.
21 Elmbrook Solutions has 60 active suppliers. Its category manager classifies the cloud hosting provider — which underpins client-facing services and would take 9–12 months to switch — as a strategic supplier. The classification is challenged by the CFO, who notes that the cloud provider accounts for only 3% of total spend. How should the category manager justify the strategic classification?
22 Which of the following is NOT a core objective of Total Quality Management (TQM)?
23 Aquila Aerospace Ltd uses Statistical Process Control (SPC) charts to monitor its component manufacturing processes. The system flags an alert when a measurement falls outside the Upper or Lower Control Limits. What type of variation does this alert signal?
24 Hartfield Energy Co. has 500 active suppliers. Its analysis shows that 100 of these suppliers (20%) account for 78% of its total procurement spend. Which analytical tool does this finding directly reflect, and what is the recommended procurement response?
25 Crestfield Retail Group's CFO has demanded a quality-cost reduction review and asked the procurement team to classify each cost line into the four Cost of Quality (CoQ) categories so that 'failure costs' can be targeted first. Reviewing last quarter's cost lines, which TWO are FAILURE costs under the CoQ framework? Select TWO.

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